John 1:1 states: 'In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.'-KJV. Later in the same chapter, John clearly shows that 'the Word' is Jesus.-John 1:14. Since the Word is called God, some conclude that the Son and the Father must be part of the same God. Is this true?

Bear in mind that this part of the Bible was originally written in Greek. Later, translators rendered the greek text into other languages. A number of bible translators, though, did not use the phrase, 'the Word was God.' Why not? Based on their knowledge of biblical greek, those translators concluded that the phrase 'the Word was God' should be translated differently. How? Here are a few examples:

'and the word was a god' - by The New Testamemt, in An Improved Version, Upon the basis of Archibishop Newcome's New translation: with a corrected text, London 1808

'and the Word was divine' by The Bible- an American Translation, J.M.P. Smith and E.J. Goodspeed, chicago 1935

'and godlike sort was the Logos' -- Das Evangelium nach Johannes, Berlin 1978 (German translation)

'and a god was the Word'--The Emphatic Diaglott, NY and London,1864

'and the Word was a god' --New World Translation, 1950

According to these translations, the Word is not God himself. Instead, because of his high position among Jehovah's creatures, the Word is referred to as 'a god.' here the term 'god' means 'mighty one.'Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as a 'god' is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example: at Psalm 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as 'gods' (Hebrew, 'elohim', Greek 'theoi) because they were representatives of Jehovah and were to speak his law. Human judges in Israel were referred to as 'gods' but it doesn't mean they are equal to the Almighty God. Similarly, Jesus is referred to as 'god' or ' God' but it does not mean he is equal to the Almighty God.

Moreover, consider what John further writes in chapter 1 verse 18. 'No man has seen God at any time.' Had any human seen Jesus Christ? Of course! So, then, was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. How, then, could Jesus be part of the Almighty God? -Toward the end of John's Gospel, he summarized matters, saying: 'These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, (note: not God, but) the Son of God.' -John 20:31, RS

Further, John also states that the Word was with God. But how can an individual be 'WITH' someone and at the same time BE that person? -In John 17:3, Jesus makes a clear distinction between himself and his heavenly Father. He calls his Father 'the only true God.' Clearly, Jesus is a 'god' in the sense that he has a high position but is not the same as the Almighty God. Jesus himself said: 'The Father is greater than I'- John 14:28